Baseball scoring question

[bigpern23]

I know catcher's interference doesn't go down as an official AB, but if it happens with the bases loaded, is the batter credited with an RBI? Is it an earned run?

 

[occasionally]

Yes and yes, no matter how many outs. You don't recalculate CI as an out when figuring earned runs; however, if the batter comes around to score, he would be unearned.

 

[Central-KY-Kid]

10.16 (d) - No run shall be earned when the scoring runner's advance has been aided by an error, a passed ball or defensive interference or obstruction, if in the official scorer's judgment the run would not have scored without the aid of such misplay.

New Rule 10:
http://www.knbsb-stats.nl/knbsb/2006_2007_Official_Baseball_Rules_amendments.pdf

 

[bigpern23]

10.16 (d) - No run shall be earned when the scoring runner's advance has been aided by an error, a passed ball or defensive interference or obstruction, if in the official scorer's judgment the run would not have scored without the aid of such misplay.

New Rule 10:
http://www.knbsb-stats.nl/knbsb/2006_2007_Official_Baseball_Rules_amendments.pdf

Well, since we had conflicting answers here, I decided to stop being lazy and check out the rulebook myself. According to MLB rule 10.04:
Credit the batter with a run batted in for every run which reaches home base because of the batter's safe hit, sacrifice bunt, sacrifice fly, infield out or fielder's choice; or which is forced over the plate by reason of the batter becoming a runner with the bases full (on a base on balls, or an award of first base for being touched by a pitched ball or for interference or obstruction).

So, based on that rule and rule 10.18(d) -- which is the same as the rule cited by KY Kid -- it appears that the batter receives an RBI, but it goes down as an unearned run.

Does this sound correct?

 

[spnited]

Sounds correct except for one catch, pern.

if in the official scorer's judgment the run would not have scored without the aid of such misplay


Does that imply that if the batter after the interference call hits a grand slam, the run that scored on interference becomes earned and the only unearned run in the guy who reached on interference?

 

[bigpern23]

Sounds correct except for one catch, pern.

if in the official scorer's judgment the run would not have scored without the aid of such misplay


Does that imply that if the batter after the interference call hits a grand slam, the run that scored on interference becomes earned and the only unearned run in the guy who reached on interference?

It sounds that way. However, the next two batters in the game I covered struck out, so I don't think the run would have scored without the interference. Impossible to tell, though, really, because who knows what the batter who hit the catcher might have done if not for the interference. It would have been a 1-2 count without it.

Now that I think about it, since I can't assume he would have made an out, should I go with an earned run?

 

[occasionally]

Sounds correct except for one catch, pern.

if in the official scorer's judgment the run would not have scored without the aid of such misplay


Does that imply that if the batter after the interference call hits a grand slam, the run that scored on interference becomes earned and the only unearned run in the guy who reached on interference?

It sounds that way. However, the next two batters in the game I covered struck out, so I don't think the run would have scored without the interference. Impossible to tell, though, really, because who knows what the batter who hit the catcher might have done if not for the interference. It would have been a 1-2 count without it.

Now that I think about it, since I can't assume he would have made an out, should I go with an earned run?

Sounds like it would be unearned. Like I said (and this came directly from a Class AAA official scorer), you ignore the CI when reconstructing the inning for earned-run purposes. Since the next two guys K'd, I would say unearned.

 

[bigpern23]

Sounds correct except for one catch, pern.

if in the official scorer's judgment the run would not have scored without the aid of such misplay


Does that imply that if the batter after the interference call hits a grand slam, the run that scored on interference becomes earned and the only unearned run in the guy who reached on interference?

It sounds that way. However, the next two batters in the game I covered struck out, so I don't think the run would have scored without the interference. Impossible to tell, though, really, because who knows what the batter who hit the catcher might have done if not for the interference. It would have been a 1-2 count without it.

Now that I think about it, since I can't assume he would have made an out, should I go with an earned run?

Sounds like it would be unearned. Like I said (and this came directly from a Class AAA official scorer), you ignore the CI when reconstructing the inning for earned-run purposes. Since the next two guys K'd, I would say unearned.

Makes sense. RBI, unearned run is how I'm scoring it. And since the official scorer asked me how it's scored, I guess that's the official scoring now. :)