Baseball scoring question

Situation: Player A attempts sacrifice bunt to bring home Player B. Player B scores, but Player A reaches first safely on an errand throw.

Question: Being that Player A's sacrifice was successful but there was an error, should he go down as 0-for-0 or 0-for-1? After the game, I conferred with both coaches. One coach said 0-for-0, the other said 0-for-1. The surprise was that Player A's coach was actually the one who said that if a player reaches on an error, sacrifice or not, it should be 0-for-1.

 

http://www.baseball-almanac.com/rule10.shtml

10.09 (a) Score a sacrifice bunt when, before two are out, the batter advances one or more runners with a bunt and is put out at first base, or would have been put out except for a fielding error.

 

Greatly appreciated. I should have known to trust Player A's coach, who has about 30 years in baseball.

 

???

It sounds like Player A's coach was wrong. The way I'm reading that, the player would be 0 for 0.

 

I'm with longtimelistener. I read it as an 0 for 0. You score a sacrifice under two occasions. 1) The batter is out at first or 2) the batter would've been out if it hadn't been for an error.

 

It's a sacrifice and and error, no at-bat.

 

I'm sorry, I meant the coach who said 0-for-0. I mixed myself up with the fill-in names.

 

Player should also get an RBI on the play if the runner scored on a squeeze. No RBI if scored only because of the error.

 

I have another scoring question, inspired by Coco Crisp.

Coco steals second base, reaches safely but slides past the bag and gets tagged out. Does he get credit for a stolen base?

 

I'm not a rules geek, but I don't think he does. The slide past the bag is a continuation of the play, so if he's not safe at second at the end of the play, then it's not a successful steal. But someone who knows the rule book better than me can find out for sure.

 

I think I saw that game, and I think the call was no steal.

I think, though I have no real justification for this, that you'd have to evaluate it based on whether the stolen base was completed. If he swipes second, the throw bounces away, he goes halfway to third and then gets thrown out, it's a stolen base. But if he overslides the bag, he never successfully steals the base. He hasn't been in possession of second base, to steal a term from football, long enough to have stolen it.

Or something like that.

 

Rule 10.07 (e): When a runner is tagged out after oversliding a base, while attempting either to
return to that base or to advance to the next base, the official scorer shall not credit
such runner with a stolen base.

What about someone who goes to first on a hit and then gets tagged out? Does he get a single? Caught stealing?